The exercise that I am working on is:
If $P(A_n) \to 0$ and $\sum_{n = 1} ^\infty P(A_n^c \cap A_{n + 1}) < \infty$ then $P(A_n \text{ i.o.}) = 0$.
The proof that I am trying to understand is the one line proof provided by Durrett is:
$$\lim_n P(\bigcup_{k = n} ^\infty A_k) \leq \lim_n P(A_n) + \sum_{k = n} ^\infty P(A_k^c \cap A_{k + 1}) = 0.$$
It seems like Durrett has used a union bound for $P(\bigcup_{k = n} ^\infty A_k)$, where he is claiming $$ \bigcup_{k = n} ^\infty A_k \subseteq A_n \cup \bigcup_{k = n} ^\infty (A_k^c \cap A_{k + 1}). $$ How can I see this set inclusion?