What is the difference/relationship between the gradient and the Jacobian?
I think it has to do with vectors/covectors, tangent spaces / contangent spaces, but I'm not sure what's going on. (A gentle and readable but thorough reference in addition to an answer would be appreciated too.)
Let $R$ be the real numbers.
Let $f: R^2 \longrightarrow R$ be a smooth function.
Let $p \in R^2$.
(The Jacobian is typically defined for (differentiable?) functions $f: R^n \longrightarrow R^m$, but just set $m$ to 1.)
Now the gradient is a vector field, whose value at $p$ is a (column) vector (in particular, not a covector):
$$\nabla f(p) := \left[{\partial f \over \partial x_1}(p) \ \ {\partial f \over \partial x_2}(p)\right]^T$$
(with the convention that vectors are column vectors and covectors are row vectors).
And the Jacobian $Jf(p)$ is the $1 \times 2$ matrix (or just the row vector, ie. covector? what's the rigorous difference?):
$$Jf(p) := \left[\left[{\partial f \over \partial x_1}(p) \ \ {\partial f \over \partial x_2}(p)\right]\right].$$
In particular, since the gradient and the Jacobian are just "transposes" (duals) of each other, when would you use one or the other? What's the point?
There are related questions here, here, here, but I'm hoping for more insights.