It is clear that for $t \ge 0$ that we must have $h(t) = f( \sqrt{t})$. Since $f$ is smooth and $t \mapsto \sqrt{t}$ is smooth for $t>0$, we see that $h$ is smooth on $t >0$.
Since $f$ is even, for any $n$, Taylor's theorem gives
$f(t) = \sum_{k=0}^n {f^{(2k)}(0) \over (2k)!} t^{2k} +R_{2n+1}(t)$,
where $R_k(t) = {t^{k+1} \over k!} \int_0^1 f^{(k+1)}(st) (1-s)^k ds$. Hence, for $t>0$ we have
$h(t) = \sum_{k=0}^n {f^{(2k)}(0) \over (2k)!} t^{k} +R_{2n+1}(\sqrt{t})$. (Note that the subscript on $R$ is $2n+1$.)
(Thanks to @AnneBauval's meticulous attention for catching an overreaching conclusion at this point in an earlier version of the proof.)
Let $r(t) = R_{2n+1}(\sqrt{t})$, then
$r(t) = {t^{n+1} \over (2n+1)!} \int_0^1 f^{(2n+2)}(s\sqrt{t}) (1-s)^{2n+1} ds$.
If we show that the one sided derivatives $r^{(k)}(0)$ exist and are zero for $k=0,...,n-1$ then it follows that the same is true for $h^{(k)}(0)$. Since $n$ is arbitrary, if follows that $h^{(k)}(0)$ exists for all $k$.
Let
${\cal T}_p$ be the span of the functions of the form
$t \mapsto t^l \int_0^1 f^{(k+1)}(s\sqrt{t}) (1-s)^{k} s^m ds$, for $k \ge 0, l \ge p, m \ge 0$ (and $t \ge 0$, of course). The elements of ${\cal T}_p$ are continuous for $p \ge 0$.
If $p>0$ and $\phi \in {\cal T}_p$, note that $\phi(0) = 0$.
If $p>1$ and $\phi \in {\cal T}_p$, note that $\phi$ is differentiable (a one sided derivative from the right at $t=0$), $\phi'(0) = 0$ and
$\phi' \in {\cal T}_{p-1}$.
Since $r \in {\cal T}_{n+1}$, it follows that $r(0)=r^{(1)}(0) = \cdots = r^{(n-1)}(0) = 0$ and so $h$ has one sided derivatives at $t=0$ and these are given by $h^{(k)}(0) = k!{f^{(2k)}(0) \over (2k)!}$.
All that remains is to show that $h$ can be extended to a smooth function for $t <0$. The tool for this is Borel's Lemma applied to the sequence $h^{(k)}(0)$. This gives the existence of a smooth function $g$ such that $g^{(k)}(0)= h^{(k)}(0)$.
To finish, let $h(t) = \begin{cases} f(\sqrt{t}, & t>0,\\
g(t),& \text{otherwise}\end{cases}$