$$I=\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln\left(x^2\right)}{\left(1+x^{2}\right)\left(\pi^{2}+\ln^{2}x\right)}dx$$ $$I=2\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln\left(x\right)}{\left(1+x^{2}\right)\left(\pi^{2}+\ln^{2}x\right)}dx$$ Substituting $x\to\frac{1}{x}$: $$I=-2\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(x\right)}{\left(x^{2}+1\right)\left(\pi^{2}+\ln^{2}x\right)}dx$$ This would imply: $$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(x\right)}{\left(1+x^{2}\right)\left(\pi^{2}+\ln^{2}x\right)}dx=0$$
After searching the Integral on Approach0, I found various sources where an Incorrect Value is given: $$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln\left(x^2\right)}{\left(1+x^{2}\right)\left(\pi^{2}+\ln^{2}x\right)}dx=\ln2-\frac{1}{2}$$ This is wrong, as can be checked numerically. But a user on AoPS gave the following Correction (AoPS) with the Solution as Well: $$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln\left(x^2\right)}{\left(1\color{red}{-}x^{2}\right)\left(\pi^{2}+\ln^{2}x\right)}dx=\frac{1}{2}-\ln2$$
Trying out the Solution Step by Step, I was able to get till here: $$I=-2\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-\pi u}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\left(-1\right)^{n}\frac{u}{u^{2}+\left(2n+1\right)^{2}}\right)du$$
Now the problem is that factor of $(-1)^n$ which is not present in the corrected problem, without it the sum evaluates to:
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{u}{u^{2}+\left(2n+1\right)^{2}}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\tanh\left(\frac{\pi u}{2}\right)$$
But I am not sure how to evaluate it with the $(-1)^n$ factor.
Wolfram only gives a Partial Sum Formula in terms of Lerch Transcendent.
In the Post Here (AoPS), the Integral has a Series form as follows: $$I=-\frac{4}{\pi}\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\left(-1\right)^{m}\left(2m+1\right)}{\left(2m+1\right)^{2}-4}\ln\left(m+\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)$$
Another Post where the Wrong Integral Equality is given: Problem #67
I also think I saw this Integral before on MSE, but I am not able to find it.