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The directional derivative is the dot product of gradient and a unit vector. But what if the function is not totally differentiable? Is it an implicit assumption that formula only applies to totally differentiable functions?

Apostol Volume 2 does not really explicitly spell it out, and I am convinced that the formula only holds when the function is totally differentiable, I just want some confirmation in this regard. Furthermore, in many problems when the directional derivate is being asked to be computed, the author simply invokes the above formula, without PROVING total differentiability.

So this then begs the question: Does the formula make any sense if the function is not totally differentiable?

In other words, is the gradient a concept that 'exists' on its own or is defined 'through' total differentiability, and therefore implicitly subsumes the prerequisite of total differentiability?

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    $\begingroup$ If that formula holds, directional derivatives will depend linearly on the direction. This can only happen if the function has a total differential. $\endgroup$
    – Compacto
    Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 7:36
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    $\begingroup$ What is the definition of total differential that you know? Give it, and the definition of gradient, and I may post an answer. $\endgroup$
    – Compacto
    Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 8:08
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    $\begingroup$ @Compacto that is very false. There are discontinuous functions such that at a given point, all the directional derivatives vanish (so linear). An example is provided by $f=\chi_E$ where $E=\{(x,y)\in\Bbb{R}^2\,:\,\text{$y=x^2$ and $(x,y)\neq (0,0)$}\}$. So, OP: you’re right to be concerned, you should indeed verify differentiability before invoking formulae. Having said this, often the partial derivatives are ‘obviously’ continuous so the function is indeed differentiable. $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 8:39
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    $\begingroup$ My interpretation of the question was OP was concerned by the edge case where you have some differentiability in directions, but not total differentiability and whether the concept and formula of directional derivative still applies. Although peek-a-boo is correct technically it's not a very good example, since it's not at all differentiable or continuous. This is what Compacto refers to, where you can have (to use jargon), a well defined nonlinear Gateaux derivative, which as Mark S says depends on the conventions whether one considers this an acceptable notion of directional derivative. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 10:03
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    $\begingroup$ So to conclude, if the "grad dot direction" computation is being used, one requires the total derivative to be linear. To do this one requires a bounded linear map, the Frechet derivative to exist so the map must be totally differentiable. Otherwise directional derivatives may exist, but they may be nonlinear and will not be given by the formula you expect. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 10:10

1 Answer 1

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I think most of what needs to be said is in the comments, but in an attempt to set things out clearly:

If $f\colon \Omega\to \mathbb R$ is a function defined on an open set $\Omega$ of $\mathbb R^n$ (with the normal Euclidean notion of distance say) then for $a \in \Omega$ and $v \in \mathbb R^n$, the directional derivative of $f$ at $a$ in the direction $v$ is $$ \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(a+t.v)-f(a)}{t} $$ when this limit exists. It is denoted in various ways, I'll use $\partial_vf(a)$. You can check that if $r \in \mathbb R$ then $\partial_{r.v} f(a) = r.\partial_v f(a)$, that is $\partial_v f$ is compatible with scalar multiplication (so it suffices to compute directional derivatives for vectors of norm $1$ for example).

In deciding what it means for $f$ to be differentiable at $a$, there are (at least) the following possible options:

  1. Require only that $\partial_vf(a)$ exists for all $v \in \mathbb R^n$ -- or equivalently $\partial_v f(a)$ exists for all $v \in S^{n-1} = \{v \in \mathbb R^n: \|v\|=1\}$.
  2. In addition to 1., require that there is a linear map $T\colon \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R^n$ such that $\partial_v f(a) = T(v)$.
  3. In addition to 1. and 2. require that $\frac{f(a+tv)-f(a)-T(t.v)}{t}\to 0$ uniformly in $v \in S^{n-1}$, that is, require $ \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{\|f(a+h)-f(a)-T(h)\|}{\|h\|}=0$.

It is easy to see that, if $f$ satisfies 3., then $\partial_vf(a) = T(v)$, and as $T$ is usually denoted $Df_a$, this becomes $\partial_v f(a) = Df_a(v)$. Using the standard basis to associate a matrix to the linear map $Df_a$, this becomes the dot product formula in the OP.

If condition 1. holds then $\partial_v f(a)$ is known as the Gateaux derivative or Gateaux differential of $f$ at $a$. Oddly, as far as I know, condition 2. doesn't seem to have a name, while condition 3., the one most widely taught, is called the Frechet derivative.

It has a number of things going for it, such as, if $f$ has a Frechet derivative at $a$ then $f$ is continuous at $a$, whereas this is false for functions satisfying conditions 1 and 2.

Examples:

i) A function which satisfies $1.$ and not $2.$ at $a=(0,0)\in\mathbb R^2$ is $$ f_1(x,y) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cc} \frac{x^2y}{x^2+y^2} & (x,y)\neq (0,0)\\ 0, & (x,y)=(0,0)\end{array}\right. $$ Indeed $\partial_vf_1(0)= f_1(v)$.

ii) A function which satisfies 2. and not 3. is given in the comments above. If we write $1_A$ for the indicator function of $A$, that is $1_A(x)=1$ if $x\in A$ and $1_A(x)=0$ otherwise, then we get a similar example by considering $U = \{(x,y):0<y<x^2<1\}$: its indicator function $1_U$ satisfies $2.$ but not $3.$ at $a=(0,0)$. Indeed $1_U$ is of course not continuous at $(0,0)$, since $(0,0) \in \overline{U}$.

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    $\begingroup$ I'm not sure anyone cares, but if you want an example of a function satisfying 2. but not 3. which is nevertheless continuous, then you can just "damp" the indicator function $1_U$ appropriately: for example, $f_2(\mathbf x) = \|\mathbf x\|^{1/2}.1_U(\mathbf x)$ certainly satisfies $f_2(\mathbf x)\to 0$ as $\mathbf x\to 0$, and its directional derivatives at $0$ all still vanish, but $f_2(t,t^2/2)/\|(t,t^2/2)\| = \|(t,t^2/2)\|^{-1/2} \to \infty$ as $t \to 0$. $\endgroup$
    – krm2233
    Commented Aug 16, 2023 at 10:22

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