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(I currently possess only the Japanese Edition of Hartshorne's book. Therefore, I kindly request that any answers provided do not rely on page numbers (of the English Edition) for reference. Thank you.)

In Corollary 4.8 in Chapter 2 of the book, it is stated that only closed immersions (and not open immersions) are considered proper. However, I believe the open immersions are proper under the assumption of the corollary. The following is the proof I wrote.

This corollary assumes that all schemes are noetherian. Since $X$ is noetherian, an open immersion $f: X \to Y$ should also be quasi-compact. Thus $f$ is of finite type, by Exercise 3.13.$\require{AMScd}$

\begin{CD} \mathrm{Spec}\ K @>>> B \\ @V{\text{$i$}}VV @VV{\text{$f$}}V \\ \mathrm{Spec}\ R @>{\text{$\phi$}}>> D \end{CD}

Now we can apply valuative criterion (Theorem 4.7). $f$ is a open immersion, so $f$ is a split mono and there is $g : Y \to X$ such that $gf = 1_X$. Then $g\phi : T \to X$ is the only morphism that remains the diagram above commutative. (The commutativity is evident. The uniqueness is followed by the fact that $f$ is separated or the fact that $f$ is a mono in the meaning of category theory.) By the criterion, it follows that $f$ is proper. $\blacksquare$

Is the proof above is wrong? Or was the fact that open immersions are proper under the assumption accidentally not written in the corollary?

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The proof is wrong: open immersions are not in general split monos. For instance, over a field $k$, the open immersion of $\Bbb A^1\to\Bbb P^1$ as $D(t_1)$ cannot be split, because every map from $\Bbb P^1$ to $\Bbb A^1$ has image a point.

(Another reason this is wrong because a proper map is defined to be universally closed, and in particular closed. So an open immersion which does not have closed image can't be proper.)

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