$$\DeclareMathOperator{\sech}{sech} \int \frac{- (\arctan{ \frac{(a + \sqrt{a})x}{a-1}}) \sech^2(\pi x)(-2 \pi x + sinh(2 \pi x)) \tanh^2{\pi x}}{x^4}dx =???? $$
Alternatively: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{- (\arctan{ \frac{(a + \sqrt{a})x}{a-1}}) \sech^2(\pi x)(-2 \pi x + sinh(2 \pi x)) \tanh^2{\pi x}}{x^4}dx =???? $$
For some $\forall a \in \mathbb R_{\gt 1}$
This integral came up in my research and I thought, "Oh I'll just run it through Wolfram Alpha". That did not work. But now I'm greatly confused as to why. I posted this question previously, but it was closed because individuals needed some additional information, which I've provided below.
I will settle for a calculation in the range of integration from $-\infty$ to $\infty$, but I really am asking about the anti-derivative.
I was going to let this go, but now I have to know why this is so difficult to calculate in a reasonable amount of time. Anyone know?
(Naive) Motiviation:
Typically (that is to say in my experience) these types of integrals of trigonometric products can be broken down using existing methods; We can usually reach some "solved point" with some additive and/or multiplicative constants notwithstanding. "What is so special about this particular function?" is another way to phrase what I'm asking.
Some background on preferences and pitfalls when dealing with trigonometric integrals:
Showing $\int_0^{\int_0^u{\rm sech}vdv}\sec vdv\equiv u$ and $\int_0^{\int_0^u\sec vdv}{\rm sech} vdv\equiv u$ In trig substitutions, why favor $\sin$, $\tan$, $\sec$, $\sinh$, $\cosh$, $\tanh$ over $\cos$, $\cot$, $\csc$, etc? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_secant_cubed
EDIT: I changed the scalar argument of the the arctan function, so calculating the definite integral is not so obvious. Thanks to @KevinDietrich for the catch.