I recently came onto a set of numbers with an interesting pattern, but I can't prove it always holds true. I'd appreciate any help in figuring it out.
Let the set $S$ $$S = \left \{ \frac{1}{q^2+1} , q \in \mathbb{Q^+} \right \}$$
And three elements of that set $a,b,c \in S$
My conjecture is that if their average is equal to $\frac{1}{2}$, then at least one of them must be equal to $\frac{1}{2}$.
$$\frac{a+b+c}{3} = \frac{1}{2} \implies (a =\frac{1}{2}) \lor (b=\frac{1}{2}) \lor (c=\frac{1}{2})$$
Do you have any idea on how to prove, or disprove that claim?
Edit to provide examples: You can easily generate sets of numbers that verify the conjectured pattern. Let $f(q) = \frac{1}{q^2+1}$ for rational $q$.
All triplets of the form $(f(1), f(q), f(\frac{1}{q}))$ have an average of $\frac{1}{2}$.