Let's take for example the equation: $$y=1+y'^2$$ Now I see that this equation is seperable but I don't understand why using the general method for implicit ODEs can lead to the following strange outcome. First we substitute: $$y'=p(x)\, \,\,\,\,\,\,\, \text{ so} \,\,\,\,\,\,\, y=y(x,p(x))$$ Then we take the full derivative of $y$ to find $p(x)$: $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial y}{\partial p}\frac{dp}{dx}=p(x)$$ And so we get: $$p(x)=2y'p'\Rightarrow p'=\frac{1}{2}$$ But $p'=y''$ So we have two options:
One is to integrate twice and get an expression for $y$: $$\int p' dx=p=\frac{x}{2}+C_1\\ \int p \,dx=\int y'dx=y=\frac{x^2}{4}+xC_1+C_2 \\ \Rightarrow y(x)=\frac{x^2}{4}+xC_1+C_2$$ Second is to solve for $p(x)$ and plug it in the original ODE: $$\int p' dx=p=\frac{x}{2}+C \\ y=1+p^2=1+(\frac{x}{2}+C)^2$$ Why do the two methods give us different answers and what is the intuitive meaning behind the second constant? I just can't wrap my head around it. Or maybe there is a mistake in the first method that I don't catch. Please explain.