I'm struggling with the following introductory probability problem:
Bob randomly chooses 8 cards from a 52-card deck. What is the probability that all the aces are contained in his choice?
The answer is given as:
Since there are 4 aces, Bob can only choose 4 more cards out of the remaining 48 cards, so total number of hands Bob can have such that they include the aces is $${4\choose 4} {48\choose 4}$$ The total number of ways Bob can choose any 8 cards is $$52 \choose 8$$ So the probability is $$\frac{{4\choose 4} {48\choose 4}}{52\choose 8}$$
I understand the denominator of this expression, but I don't understand the numerator. To me, the numerator seems to give the number of outcomes where the aces are the first 4 cards selected out of 8, but not those outcomes where the aces are interspersed, so to speak, among the other cards, and thus undercounts the viable outcomes.
I tried to simplify the question to resolve my confusion, but I ran into the same issue. For instance, if you were to select 3 cards from a 4-card deck of $\{A, B, C, D\}$, what is the probability that your selection would contain $A$ and $B$? If you write out all 24 permutations of 3 cards, you find that $1/2$ of them contain $A$ and $B$. However, if you substitute in the problem values to the solution above, you get $$\frac{{2\choose 2}{2\choose 1}}{4\choose 3} = \frac{\frac{2!}{(2-2)!}\frac{2!}{(2-1)!}}{\frac{4!}{(4-3)!}}=\frac{2!\cdot 2!}{4!}=\frac{4}{24}=\frac{1}{6}$$ Thus underestimating the probability.
Could someone please tell me where I am going wrong? Thanks.