I'm currently going a textbook in a physics course and in there is the following expression $$\mathbb{E}_{x}\left[\mathbb{E}_{y}\left[f(x,y)\right]\right],$$ where $y \overset{\mathrm{i.i.d}}{\sim} \mathcal{N}(0, 1)$ and $x \overset{\mathrm{i.i.d}}{\sim} P_X(x)$. The author of the notes then transforms this expression to $$\mathbb{E}_{x,y}\left[f(x,y)\right],$$ with the following argument "because the standard normal distribution is symmetric around zero and a change of variable $y\to -y$".
Now I already did some searching and found this very related question: Expectation over 2 random variables, help needed
The answers talk about the so called Fubini theorem so I tried looking it up on wikipedia. The problem is that I have a very hard time understanding what the article says and I especially have a problem connecting it to the symmetry argument the author made...
I wanted to ask if anyone could help and point me out where the connection is such that I understand this step in the notes a little bit better. Thank you!