I am studying the spectral theorem for unbounded s.a. operators. The existence of a spectral measure E sucht that the Operator $T=\int_{\sigma(t)}\lambda dE(\lambda):=E(id)$, is already shown. What i want to understand now is the uniqueness of the spectral measure.
The Idea in my script is to show that any other spectral measure $F$ with $T=\int_{\sigma(t)}\lambda dF(\lambda)$ has to satisfy:
$\int_{\sigma(T)} \frac{1}{\lambda-z}dE(\lambda) = \int_{\sigma(T)} \frac{1}{\lambda-z}dF(\lambda)$ for $z \in \mathbb{C}/\mathbb{R}$,
and then to use the Theorem of Stone-Weierstraß to approximate the continuous functions by functions of the form $p_N(\lambda)=\sum_{i=1}^{N}\frac{1}{\lambda - z_k}$ uniformly.
And Finally to approximate the bounded measurable functions by the continuous functions pointwise in order to show that $E=F$.
My problem is to understand these approximation procedures. If $\phi = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} p_n$ is a continuous function then in which sense can i take the limit $E(\phi)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} E(p_n)$?
Finally: why is it enough to proof $E(f)=F(f)$ only for bounded measurable $f$?