This is inspired by a previous question of mine: What is $x^\bot$? Is $\zeta(\bot)=\bot$ for Riemann's zeta function $\zeta$ and wheel theory's $\bot$?
The Question:
What is $\zeta(\varepsilon)$ for Riemann's zeta function $\zeta$ and the dual number $\varepsilon$?
The Details:
Define $\varepsilon$, by fiat, to be a nonzero number such that $\varepsilon^2=0$. This is known as a dual number.
Define Riemann's zeta function as
$$\zeta(s)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^s}.\tag{$\Delta$}$$
Thoughts:
We can write
$$\zeta(s)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-s}$$
and so
$$\zeta(\varepsilon)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-\varepsilon}$$
requires us to make sense, first of all, of $n^{-\varepsilon}$.
Consider
$$\begin{align} n^{-\varepsilon}&=e^{\log\left(n^{-\varepsilon}\right)}\\ &=e^{-\varepsilon\log(n)}, \end{align}$$
assuming logarithms make sense for dual numbers. Then, with a further assumption that the following makes sense, we have
$$\begin{align} e^{-\varepsilon\log(n)}&=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-\varepsilon\log(n))^k}{k!}\\ &=1-\varepsilon \log(n), \end{align}$$
so that
$$\begin{align} \zeta(\varepsilon)&=\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-\varepsilon}\\ &=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (1-\varepsilon\log(n))\\ &=\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1-\varepsilon\sum_{n=1}^\infty \log(n), \end{align}$$
which I don't know how to evaluate.
Doubts:
I made a bunch of assumptions in the above. There's nothing to say that $\Delta$ makes sense as a definition for $\zeta$ for $\varepsilon$; indeed, the above would not work for $s=-1$, as we all know.
Please help :)
[tag:dual-numbers]
for dual-numbers. $\endgroup$zeta(z)
and choosing “dual numbers” $\endgroup$