Let $(r_n)_{n \ge 1}$ be the set of rational numbers. For any given $k \ge 1$, define:
$$G_k = \bigcup_{n = 1}^{\infty} (r_n - d_{k, n} / 2, r_n + d_{k, n} / 2)$$
where
$$d_{k, n} = \frac{1}{k}\frac{1}{2^n}$$
then clearly $G_k$ has finite measure, indeed $m(G_k) \lt \frac{1}{k}$. Also, note that $(G_k)_{k \ge 1}$ is a decreasing sequence of open sets. Since $\mathbb{Q}$ is not a $\mathcal{G}_{\delta}$ set, we cannot have $G = \bigcap_{k = 1}^{\infty} G_k = \mathbb{Q}$, however, $m(G) = 0$ by the limit property of measure.
My question is, what lies in the set $G \setminus \mathbb{Q}$ (which is a non-empty zero measure set)?
I suppose the answer should rely on the ordering of rational numbers. So examples of $G \setminus \mathbb{Q}$ with any ordering of rational numbers are welcomed.