In my analysis class integral of differential form $w=fdx_1 \wedge dx_2 \wedge ... \wedge dx_k$ on some open subset of $R^n$ was defined as follows:
$$\int_Uw=\int_Ufd\lambda$$
So as lebesgue integral.
Consider set bounded by $\left|x \right|<1$ and $\left|y \right|<1$ (square), call this set $U$. I want to compute following integral:
$$\int_Udx \wedge dy$$
From definition it is equal to:
$$\int_Ud\lambda_2$$
Which is equal to:
$$\int_{-1}^1\int_{-1}^1dxdy$$
Now, from this post: what measure is dx ,if $dx$ is lebesgue measure $1$, is $dxdy$ lebesgue measure $2$? Is it true that $dx \wedge dy$ is lebesgue measure $2$?
So the question basically is whether differential forms are lebesgue measures.