In the following, I am referring to this paper, p. 14, line (3.14):
It is said that from $$ \frac{\Vert f^{n+1}\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2-\Vert f^n\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2}{2\Delta t}+\frac{1}{\varepsilon^2}\Vert f^{n+1}-\rho^{n+1}\mathcal{M}\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2\leq 0\tag{3.13} $$ for all $n\geq 0$ it particularly follows that $$ \max\left(\sup_{n\geq 0}\Vert f^n\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2,\frac{2}{\varepsilon^2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\Delta t\Vert f^n-\rho^n\mathcal{M}\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2\right)\leq\Vert f^0\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2\tag{3.14} $$
I have two questions:
(1) Why does (3.13) imply (3.14)?
(2) It is said that (3.14) implies uniqueness of a solution with respect to (3.10) because (3.10) is a finite dimensional linear system. Why does this imply the uniqueness of a solution? As a finite dimensional linear system, it has either no solution, a unique solution or infinitely many solutions. So how does (3.14) tell me that there exists a unique solution?
As to (1):
(3.13) is equivalent to $$ \Vert f^{n+1}\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2+\frac{2}{\varepsilon^2}\Delta t \Vert f^{n+1}-\rho^{n+1}\mathcal{M}\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2\leq \Vert f^n\Vert_{2,\gamma}^2 $$
Now, as this holds for all $n\geq 0$, I can take the supremum over $n\geq 0$ on both sides. But what next?
Edit
I have outsourced question (2) to a separate question!