Let $\mathcal{L}, \mathcal{L}'$ two languages in first order logic such that $\mathcal{L}\subset \mathcal{L}'$, $\Gamma \subseteq Form_{\mathcal{L}}$ and $\varphi \in Form_{\mathcal{L}}$. Prove that if $\Gamma \vdash_{\mathcal{L}'} \varphi$ then $\Gamma \vdash_{\mathcal{L}}\varphi$.
In my book, there is a proof when $\mathcal{L}'$ is an extension of $\mathcal{L}$ with only constant symbols, but this is the general case.
I am trying to proceed by contraposition. In case of $\Gamma \nvdash_{\mathcal{L}}\varphi$, then by the Completeness Theorem $\Gamma \nvDash_{\mathcal{L}}\varphi$ so $\Gamma \cup \{\neg \varphi\}$ is satisfiable.
There I stuck because I suspect that being satisfiable in $\mathcal{L}$ implies being satisfiable in $\mathcal{L}'$ but I don't know how to prove it or even it is true. Possible answers will be appreciated.