I'm citing Risken, "The Fokker-Planck equation", 2nd edition, at page 70-71:
To derive (...) we need the generalized Cauchy-Schwarz inequality \begin{equation}\tag{1} \left(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)g(x)h(x)\mathrm{d}x\right)^2\leq\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f^2(x) h(x)\mathrm{d}x\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}g^2(x) h(x)\mathrm{d}x \end{equation} which holds for any arbitrary functions $f(x)$ and $g(x)$, and for non-negative $h(x)$
But... how can this be true? The only thing he says is
$$\tag{2}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\left(f(x) g(y) - f(y) g (x)\right)^2 h(x)h(y) \mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y \geq 0 $$
What if both the left and the right-hand side of $(1)$ are infinite (and they may as well be, since $f$ and $g$ are arbitrary)? Two infinities cannot be ordered, $\infty-\infty$ is neither positive nor negative, it's just an indeterminate form