Let $f:[a,b]\to[0,\infty)$ ($\mathbb{R}\ni a<b\in\mathbb{R}$), and fix $c\geq0$. I want to establish the equivalence of the concepts of Lebesgue integrability and Henstock–Kurzweil integrability for this class of functions.
In particular, consider the following statements:
(1) For any $\varepsilon>0$, there exists a simple function $\omega=\sum_{j=1}^n z_j\mathbf{1}_{E_j}$ (where $n\in\mathbb{Z}_+$, the $\{z_j\}_{j=1}^n$ are distinct non-negative numbers, and the $\{E_j\}_{j=1}^n$ are Lebesgue measurable sets that form a partition of $[a,b]$) such that $0\leq\omega\leq f$ and
(1a) $f$ is Lebesgue measurable and $\sum_{j=1}^n z_j\mu(E_j)\in( c-\varepsilon,c]$, where $\mu$ is the Lebesgue measure, and the analogous sum of any non-negative simple function dominated by $f$ does not exceed $c$;
OR
(1b) $f$ is Lebesgue measurable and $\sum_{j=1}^n z_j\mu(E_j)> \varepsilon$.
(2) For any $\varepsilon>0$, there exists a “gauge” function $\delta_{\varepsilon}:[a,b]\to(0,\infty)$ such that for any $(x_j,t_j)_{j=1}^n\subset[a,b]$ ($n\in\mathbb{Z}_+$) satisfying
- $a<x_1<\ldots<x_{n-1}<x_n=b$,
- $t_j\in[x_j,x_{j-1}]$ for all $j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$ (where $x_0\equiv a$), and
- $x_j-x_{j-1}<\delta_{\varepsilon}(t_j)$ for all $j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$,
then
(2a) $\left|\sum_{j=1}^n f(t_j)(x_j-x_{j-1})-c\right|<\varepsilon$ for all $j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$;
OR
(2b) $\sum_{j=1}^n f(t_j)(x_j-x_{j-1})>\varepsilon$ for all $j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$.
I want to show that $(1a)\Longleftrightarrow(2a)$ and $(1b)\Longleftrightarrow(2b)$.
The tricky parts are as follows:
- For a given Lebesgue measurable function with integral $c$ (or $\infty$), how can one construct the desired gauge function so that the Henstock–Kurzweil integral is $c$ (or does not exist, respectively)?
- For a given Henstock–Kurzweil integrable function whose integral is finite or does not exist because it would be unbounded, how can one prove that it is Lebesgue measurable?
- For a given Henstock–Kurzweil integrable function, how can one construct the desired step function?
I skimmed through some of the relevant literature, but I failed to find any satisfying and not-too-abstruse explanation. (Disclaimer: I'm a newbie in HK-integration with some background in measure theory.) Thank you very much for your help in advance.
Note: (1a) basically states that $\int_{[a,b]}f(x)\,\mathrm{d}\mu(x)=c$ and (1b) that $\int_{[a,b]}f(x)\,\mathrm{d}\mu(x)=\infty.$