How does the interpretation of the Jacobian as the stretch factor apply when looking at a function on a subset. Say my function is projection of the plane to the x-axis, $(x,y)\mapsto (x,0)$. As a function from the plane to plane it collapses volumes so the Jacobian is 0 like I expect, $|\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&0\end{pmatrix}|=0.$ But what if this projection is viewed as a function from the line $y=x$? It is one-to-one here. It looks like a segment of volume/length $\sqrt{2}$ maps to one of volume/length $1$, so I would expect a "Jacobian-like" object to be $1/\sqrt{2}$. What is the Jacobian like object?
From reading on the Internet I have the impression this has something to do with differential forms which I have not studied, only multivariable calculus, and I already graduated. Is it possible to understand, at least with simple things like lines, without that theory?