I know a criterion of an elementary equivalence.
Let $\frak A$ and $\frak B$ be systems of a signature $\Sigma.$ For $\frak A$ and $\frak B$ to be elementary equivalent it is necessary and sufficient that for any natural $n$ and any finite signature $\Sigma_1\subseteq\Sigma$ there be nonempty sets $F_1(\Sigma_1,n),\dots,F_n(\Sigma_1,n)$ of finite partial isomorphisms $\frak A|_{\Sigma_1}\to\frak B|_{\Sigma_1}$ possessing the following property: if $f\in F_i(\Sigma_1,n),1\leqslant i<n,$ then for any $a\in A$ and $b\in B$ there are $g_1,g_2\in F_{i+1}(\Sigma_1,n)$ for which $a\in\textrm{dom }g_1,\:b\in\textrm{rang }g_2,$ and $f\subseteq g_1\cap g_2.$
Fixing finite $\Sigma_1,$ consider $F_i(\Sigma_1,n)$ for different $n.$ Evidently, for $i\leqslant m<n$ we may suppose $F_i(\Sigma_1,m)=F_i(\Sigma_1,n).$ My questions are: Do we really need the last index? Cannot we replace finite sequences of sets $F_i(\Sigma_1,n)$ with an infinite one of $F_i(\Sigma_1)$? And if we can why don't we do that?