I'm reading about Lévy's theorem at page $42$ of these notes, i.e.,
Let $X$ be a continuous local martingale such that $X_0=0$ a.s. and $\langle X\rangle_t=t$ a.s., $\forall t \in \mathbb{R}_{+}$. Then $X$ is a standard Brownian motion.
Proof. $\forall c \in \mathbb{R}, c X$ is a continuous local martingale such that $\langle c X\rangle_t=c^2 t$. Therefore, by Theorem 7.10, the process $\left(Y_t=\exp \left(c X_t-\frac{c^2 t}{2}\right), t \in \mathbb{R}_{+}\right)$is a martingale, i.e., $$ \mathbb{E}\left(\exp \left(c X_t-\frac{c^2 t}{2}\right) \mid \mathcal{F}_s\right)=\exp \left(c X_s-\frac{c^2 s}{2}\right), \quad \forall c \in \mathbb{R} $$ or $$ \mathbb{E}\left(\exp \left(c\left(X_t-X_s\right)\right) \mid \mathcal{F}_s\right)=\exp \left(\frac{c^2(t-s)}{2}\right), \quad \forall c \in \mathbb{R} . \quad (\star) $$
Fact 1: since the right-hand side is deterministic, $X_t-X_s \perp \mathcal{F}_s$. Moreover, by taking expectations, we obtain $$ \mathbb{E}\left(\exp \left(c\left(X_t-X_s\right)\right)\right)=\exp \left(\frac{c^2(t-s)}{2}\right), \quad \forall c \in \mathbb{R} . $$
Fact 2: this implies that $X_t-X_s \sim \mathcal{N}(0, t-s)$. Therefore, $X$ is a standard Brownian motion.
My question Could you please elaborate on the proof of Fact 1, i.e., how $(\star)$ implies $X_t-X_s$ is independent of $\mathcal F_s$.