The derivative of the volume of a sphere, with respect to its radius, gives its surface area. I understand that this is because given an infinitesimal increase in radius, the change in volume will only occur at the surface. Similarly, the derivative of a circle's area with respect to its radius gives its circumference for similar reasons.
A similar logic can be applied to other simple geometric shapes and the pattern holds. For a cylinder, it becomes more interesting. Its volume is $\pi r^2h$, with the height $h$ and radius $r$ being independent.
Incremental increases in a cylinders height will "add a circle" to the bottom of the cylinder, so it makes sense to me that the derivative of volume with respect to height is the are of that circle $\pi r^2$. Incremental changes to its radius, will add a "tube" around the cylinder, whose area is $2\pi rh$, the derivative of volume with respect to radius.
I thought I had found a nice heuristic reason for why the derivatives of volumes give surface areas, but it breaks down for the cone. The volume is $\frac{\pi r^2 h}{3}$. Assuming the angle $\theta$ of the cone remains constant, $h$ and $r$ are dependent ($r=h\tan\theta$).
Now, the derivative of the cone's volume with respect to height gives the area of the base of the cone, this intuitively makes sense, but the derivative with respect to radius doesn't seem to match any geometric quantity.
$V=\dfrac{\pi r^3}{3\tan\theta}~$ and $~\dfrac{\text{d}V}{\text{d}r}=\dfrac{\pi r^2}{\tan\theta}$
Similarly, I'd hoped to find some way to drive the surface area of the cone without the base $\pi rl$ where $l$ is the distance from the point of the cone to the edge of the circle at its base. However, the derivative with respect to $l$ also doesn't seem to have any meaningful geometric significance.
What's going on here? Is it an issue of not defining the shape rigorously enough? Do I need to parametrise the volume rigorously in some way?