Compute $$\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{-a x}-\mathrm{e}^{-b x}}{x} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x,$$ where $b>a>0$
$\forall y \in[a, b] $, $\left|\mathrm{e}^{-x y}\right| \leq \mathrm{e}^{-a x} $, and since $ \int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-a x} \mathrm{~d} x $ convergence, we have $ \int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \mathrm{~d} x $ uniformly convergence with respect to $ y \in[a, b] $.
Note that $$\frac{\mathrm{e}^{-a x}-\mathrm{e}^{-b x}}{x}=\int_{a}^{b} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \mathrm{~d} y,$$ so $$\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{-a x}-\mathrm{e}^{-b x}}{x} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x=\int_{a}^{b} \mathrm{~d} y \int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x,$$ where $$ \begin{aligned} & \int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x \\ = & -\frac{1}{y} \int_{0}^{+\infty} \sin x \mathrm{de}^{-x y} \\ = & -\frac{1}{y}\left(\left.\mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x\right|_{0} ^{+\infty}-\int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \cos x \mathrm{~d} x\right) \\ = & -\frac{1}{y}\left(0+\frac{1}{y} \int_{0}^{+\infty} \cos x \mathrm{de}^{-x y}\right) \\ = & -\frac{1}{y^{2}}\left(\left.\mathrm{e}^{-x y} \cos x\right|_{0} ^{+\infty}+\int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x\right) \\ = & -\frac{1}{y^{2}}\left(-1+\int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x\right). \end{aligned} $$ Therefore, $$\int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x=\frac{1}{1+y^{2}}.$$
Then
\begin{aligned} & \int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{-a x}-\mathrm{e}^{-b x}}{x} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x \\ = & \int_{a}^{b} \mathrm{~d} y \int_{0}^{+\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x y} \sin x \mathrm{~d} x \\ = & \int_{a}^{b} \frac{1}{1+y^{2}} \mathrm{~d} y \\ = & \arctan b-\arctan a . \end{aligned}
Is my solution correct? Did I make careless mistakes in my solution? Thank you very much!