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Let matrices $A, B \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$ be positive semidefinite (PSD). Let $B = V V^T$, where $V \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$. Why does the last equality hold in the following?

$$ \mbox{tr} (A B) = \mbox{tr} \left(A V V^T\right) = \mbox{tr} \left(V^T A V\right)$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking. $\endgroup$
    – Community Bot
    Feb 10 at 23:10
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    $\begingroup$ Once more, this robot should be silent : the question is clear ! $\endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Feb 10 at 23:14
  • $\begingroup$ @geetha290krm Please note that my comment was not about the facts you mention. $\endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Feb 10 at 23:19

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That's due to the cyclic property of the trace operator: $$\operatorname{tr}(\mathbf{A}\mathbf{B}\mathbf{C}\mathbf{D}) = \operatorname{tr}(\mathbf{B}\mathbf{C}\mathbf{D}\mathbf{A}) = \operatorname{tr}(\mathbf{C}\mathbf{D}\mathbf{A}\mathbf{B}) = \operatorname{tr}(\mathbf{D}\mathbf{A}\mathbf{B}\mathbf{C}).$$

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    $\begingroup$ Makes sense, I can't believe I didn't see $trace((AV)V^T) = trace(V^T(AV))$ $\endgroup$
    – maplemilk
    Feb 11 at 0:52

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