The Problem. Assume $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ bounded and $u \in H^1(\Omega,\mathbb{C})$ is some fixed function. Now consider the variational problem $$ F_\lambda(v) = \frac{\lambda}{2} \int_{\Omega} \vert u-v \vert^2 + \frac{1}{2} \int_\Omega \vert Dv \vert^2+ \frac{1}{4} \int_\Omega (1-\vert v \vert^2)^2,$$ i.e. $$F_\lambda (v) = \int_\Omega L(Dv,v,x)$$ where $$ L(p,z,x)=\frac{\lambda}{2} \vert u(x)-z \vert^2+\frac{1}{2}\vert p \vert^2+\frac{1}{4}(1-\vert z \vert^2)^2. $$ Writing this as a system of real and imaginary part, I already showed that there is a solution and the associated Euler-Lagrange equation is $$ -\Delta v=\lambda(u-v)+v(1-\vert v \vert^2). \tag{1}$$
Therefore -my professor said- we infer that any solution $v$ to this variational problem is smooth.
The Question. How can we infer that?
What I tried so far. Every solution to the variational problem is a weak solution to (1), i.e. to a quasilinear elliptic equation. Now, regularity theory to quasilinear equations seems not to be very powerful. I read the relevant chapters of this and this book, but they only give me rather weak Hölder continuity. However, Evans states in chapter 8.3.2 that in some cases the solution is $C^\infty$ if only $L$ is $C^\infty$.
Is there a result that lets me infer smoothness? Is there some property of my equation that I have missed? Any hint to some literature would be much appreciated!