I am trying to solve the integral: $\int_{0}^{\infty}\exp(-ax)dx$
Computing the indefinte integral gives: $-\frac{-1}{a}\exp(-ax)$
Now I was wondering if the following is correct: for $\infty$: $-\frac{-1}{a}\exp(-a\cdot\infty)=0$
Am I allowed to do this in this integral?