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Suppose matrix $A$ has eigenvalues $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$.
Are the eigenvalues of $A^2$: $\lambda_1^2$ and $\lambda_2^2$?
If so, can I prove this by simple diagnolization, where $T$ is the eigenbasis and $T^{-1}$ its inverse and simply because $T^{-1}A^2T$ equals the identity matrix stretched by corresponding squared eigenvalues so eigenvalues of $A^2$ are squared eigenvalues of $A$?
Also, can this be generalized into $A^n$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Note that $A$ might not be diagonalizable if it is larger than $2\times 2$ or if $\lambda_1 = \lambda_2$. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 2, 2023 at 16:43
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    $\begingroup$ Suppose $x$ is an eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$. Then $A^2x = A(Ax) = A(\lambda x) = \lambda (Ax) = \lambda\cdot \lambda x = \lambda^2 x$. No need to invoke diagonalization arguments $\endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Commented Feb 2, 2023 at 16:43
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    $\begingroup$ Terminology note: a square matrix is one with the same number of rows as columns. You might call this a squared matrix. $\endgroup$
    – Théophile
    Commented Feb 2, 2023 at 16:43
  • $\begingroup$ @JMoravitz, you are right, thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 2, 2023 at 16:46
  • $\begingroup$ @eyeballfrog indeed for the 1st part. But $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ is not a problem. For example, identity matrix has a single (double) eigenvalue $1$, and is so diagonalizable, that it is diagonal :D $\endgroup$
    – chrslg
    Commented Feb 2, 2023 at 17:37

1 Answer 1

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Counter example. In ℝ-space ℝ⁴, Consider the matrix

$$ A = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0\\ 0 & 2 & 0 & 0\\ 0 & 0 & 0 & -1\\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} $$

It has two eigenvalues, $\lambda_1=1$ and $\lambda_2=2$.

Now compute $A^2$ $$ A^2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0\\ 0 & 4 & 0 & 0\\ 0 & 0 & -1 & 0\\ 0 & 0 & 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix} $$

Which has three eigenvalues, $\mu_1 = \lambda_1^2 = 1$, $\mu_2 = \lambda_2^2 = 4$ and $\mu_3=-1$.

So, no, eigenvalues of $A^2$ are not just the squares of eigenvalues of $A$.

(But the squares of eigenvalues of $A$ are all eigenvalues of $A^2$. If $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, then $\exists u, Au=\lambda u$, and then $A^2 = A.Au = A\lambda_u = \lambda Au = \lambda \lambda u = \lambda^2 u$. But that is not the same result as "eigenvalues of $A^2$ are the eigenvalues of $A$, squared")

As for your proof, it contains the words "eigenbasis". It is therefore valid only if there is an eigenbasis. It is only the case if $A$ is diagonalizable (which, by definition, means that it exists a basis made of eigenvectors). My counter example was carefully so that it is not diagonalizable (it is just a combination of a diagonal, and of a classical $\begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\\ 1 &0\end{pmatrix}$ antipattern for diagonalization).

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