The Veronese map is defined as $v_d : \mathbb{P}^n → \mathbb{P}^{{n+d \choose n }−1}$ where $[z_0, . . . , z_n]$ maps to $ [(z_0^{ i_0}· · · z_n^{ i_n} )_{0≤i_k≤d,\sum_{k=0}^ni_k=d}].$
The image of the map lies on the variety described by equations
$X_I · X_J − X_K · X_L = 0$
where $I + J = K + L$ as multi-indices. The difficult part is to prove the converse: if the equations are satisfied, then $X$ is in the image of $v_d$. The proof of this fact in algebraic geometry books I came across begins with the observation that $X_{(0, \ldots, d, \ldots, 0)} \ne 0$ for some multi-index of type $(0, \ldots, d, \ldots, 0)$ (e.g. see page 32 here). Then the map $u$ such that $u \circ v_d = \mathrm{Id}_{\mathbb{P_n}}$ is easily constructed for the chart $X_{(0, \ldots, d, \ldots, 0)} \ne 0$.
But even if we prove that the map is well defined on the intersection of charts, I fail to see why it is the actual inverse map, i.e. why is $v_d \circ u = \mathrm{Id}_{\mathbb{P}^{{n+d \choose n }−1}}$
Given what is proved, that is, of course, equivalent, to showing that the image of $v_d$ is defined by equations $X_I · X_J − X_K · X_L = 0$. But that is the difficult part we were trying to prove in the first place, which just seems to be avoided in all algebraic geometry texts I came across. Also note that similar questions on stackexchange have the same problem. I have given my "elementary" proof, but I would be grateful if someone can explain how it follows from the proof outlined above, e.g. by some general theorem about homomorphisms.