I couldn't think of a good title. There was a small detail when I was trying to prove something about the norm of BMO functions. This small detail is not directly related to the problem itself, but here it is:
Fix $Q \in \mathbb{R}^n$ a cube, and consider the following two classes of functions:
$$ \mathcal{F} = \left\{ a(x) - m_Qa: \text{supp}(a) \subset Q, \lVert a \rVert_{L^2(Q)} \leq 1 \right\} $$
$$ \mathcal{G} = \left\{ a(x) : \text{supp}(a) \subset Q, \int_{Q} a = 0, \lVert a \rVert_{L^2(Q)} \leq 1 \right\} $$
where $m_Q a = \vert Q \vert^{-1} \int_Q a(x) dx $
I want to show that, for any $h \in L^2(Q)$ $$ \sup_{f \in \mathcal{F}} \ \left\vert \ \int_Q h(x) f(x) \ \right\vert = \sup_{g \in \mathcal{G}} \ \left\vert \ \int_Q h(x) g(x) \ \right\vert $$
In other words can I say that $$ \sup_{f \in \mathcal{F}} \ f(x) = \sup_{g \in \mathcal{G}} g(x)$$