A short disclaimer: I do know this question has been asked multiple times here and several answers (including combinatorics) have been given already. However, among all these posts, I did not find anywhere the answer by induction (as I have it understood) and hence, I thought to ask here for verification.
One should prove the following: $a^{n}-b^{n} = (a-b) \sum\limits_{k=0}^{n-1} a^{k}b^{n-1-k} \quad (\star)$
Proof:
$1^{\text{st}}$ Step: For $n=1$ it holds.
Induction Step: We assume that $(\star)$ is true for $n$. In order to show, that it is also valid for $n+1$, we calculate
$a^{n+1}-b^{n+1}=a^n\cdot a-b^n\cdot b=a^n\cdot a-b^n\cdot a+b^n\cdot a-b^n\cdot b$
$=(a^n-b^n)a+b^n(a-b)\qquad \text{at this point we use } (\star)$
$=a(a-b)(a^{n-1}+ba^{n-2}+b^2a^{n-3}+\dots+b^{n-2}a+b^{n-1})+b^n(a-b)$
$=(a-b)(a^{n}+ba^{n-1}+b^2a^{n-2}+\dots+b^{n-2}a^2+b^{n-1}a+b^n)$
Does this suffice as a proof? Or, is there any mistake in the induction step that I don't see right now?
Many thanks in advance!