I am stuck on this proof: The AM-GM Inequality is Equivalent to the Bernoulli Inequality.
I get the first part with the Bernoulli Inequality, but how did he get from $\frac{A_n}{A_{n-1}}\ge \frac{x_n}{A_{n-1}}$ to $A_n^n\ge x_{n}A_{n-1}^{n-1}$
Can someone explain to me what I am missing there?
Thanks in advance!