I'm wondering if the following statement is true:
Let $(M_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ and $(N_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ are non-negative random processes, and let $(\mathcal{F}_n)$ be a filtration. Let $\lambda > 0$
The assumptions
For each $n$, $M_n$ and $N_n$ are $\mathcal{F}_n$-measurable.
$(N_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is supermartingale with respect to the filtration $(\mathcal{F}_n)$ (i.e. for each $n\geqslant 1$ : $\mathbb{E}[ N_n \mid\mathcal{F_{n-1}}] \leqslant N_{n-1}$)
for each $n\geqslant 1$, $\mathbb{E}[ M_n \mid\mathcal{F_{n-1}}] \leqslant \mathbb{E}[ N_n \mid\mathcal{F_{n-1}}] \leqslant N_{n-1}$
Do we have, $$ \mathbb{P}\left[\sup_{ 0 \leqslant k \leqslant n} M_k \geqslant \lambda \right] \leqslant \frac{1}{\lambda} \mathbb{E}[ N_0 ]?$$
Or do we have, $$ \mathbb{E}[M_T] \leqslant \mathbb{E}[N_0]$$ where $T$ is a stopping time with respect to same filtration ?