The theorem goes: Let $A_{1}, A_{2} ... \in \mathcal{A}$ with $A_{N}$ increasing to $\Omega$ and $\mu (A_{N}) < \infty$ for all $N \in \mathbb{N}$. For measurable $f, g: \Omega \xrightarrow{} E$ where $E$ is a metric space, define
$\tilde{d}(f, g) := \sum_{N = 1}^{\infty} \frac{2^{-N}}{1 + \mu(A_{N})} \int_{A_{N}} \text{min}\{1, d(f(\omega), g(\omega))\} d\mu$.
Then $\tilde{d}$ is a metric that induces convergence in measure: if $f, f_{1}, ...$ are measurable, then $f_{n} \xrightarrow{} f$ in measure iff $\tilde{d}(f, f_{n}) \xrightarrow{} 0$.
In the proof, the author defines $\tilde{d}_{N}(f, g) = \int_{A_{N}} \text{min}\{1, d(f(\omega), g(\omega))\} d\mu$.
He says $\tilde{d}(f, f_{n}) \xrightarrow{} 0 $ iff $\tilde{d}_{N}(f, f_{n}) \xrightarrow{} 0 $ for all $N$. Why do we have this? First taking the infinite sum then taking the limit is the same as first taking the limit then sum? How to justify this?