I am well aware of long history of questions in this SE regarding the difference between impossible events and events with probability of zero, former being proper subset of latter. I have read these Q&As and I am still not able to completely answer question below:
Let $r_n$ be an infinite sequence of random numbers, such that $r_n\in I=\left[0,1\right]$ drawn from uniform distribution $U_{\left[0,1\right]}$. For a given set $S\subset I$, what is the expected number of elements from $S$ to appear in $r_n$? More specifically what I'm interested in: if the set $S$ is of Lebesgue measure zero, does that imply that expected number of its elements expected in such random process is also zero?
So, if I take finite subset, expectation is obviously zero. By the fact that expectation is countably additive $E\left(\bigcup_{i}S_i\right)=\sum_i E(S_i)$ , that means that any countable subset has expectation of zero. On the other hand, if $S$ has positive measure $q$, expected number of elements appearing in $r_n$ is infinite, with $q$ as a share of sequence elements that belong to $S$. Only thing I can think of "in between" are uncountable sets of measure zero - what would be a convincing argument that those also have expectation of zero elements in such random process?