There has been talk of whether or not $\pi$ is normal, i.e. uniformly distributed in all bases $b$ where $b\ge2$. The general response has been that we expect that it is, and have found no obvious counterexamples. Does the same apply to $e$?

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    $\begingroup$ Yes, exactly the same expectation and lack of knowledge there, though one might be a bit more suspiciuous about normality ... $\endgroup$ – Hagen von Eitzen Jul 30 '13 at 14:33

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