If we have an infinite collection of sets, where each set contains two elements, 0 and 1, without using axioms of choice, we can define a choice function that will always pick the element 0 from each set. However, it seems that if we only assume the set contains two elements, without specifying them in detail, we can not show the existence of a choice function without using the axiom of choice.
Since all the sets has a cardinality of two, we can define bijections between the two elements in each set and {0,1}. So regardless of how the bijection is defined, we can always choose the element that maps to 0.
I don't understand the difference between this operation compares to always choosing 0 in each set, but one requires the axiom of choice, while the other doesn't.
I have read many answers on stack exchange about axioms of choice. Like this one. And I saw answers that used the word "uniform" selection. I'm really confused about what "uniform" means in this case, and no questions seem to answer my confusion.
EDIT: The comment section is getting too long. So I posted a new question.