Let $f$ be a smooth, bounded function such that the limits $\lim_{x\to\pm \infty}f(x)$ exist. Then is the derivative $f'$ uniformly continuous?
I am looking for a counterexample as I think such a situation not necessarily implies that $f'$ is uniformly continuous. I know that any such function $f$ is always uniformly continuous. But don't know about the derivative.
One example I am thinking is $$f(x)=\frac1{1+x^2}.$$ One can show that $f$ is uniformly continuous. Its derivative $$f'(x)=-\frac{2x}{(1+x^2)^2}.$$ Is the derivative uniformly continuous? Please help. If my example is wrong, please provide any other example.