Here is the proposition I have:
Let $f: A \to B$ be a ring homomorphism, then $\operatorname{ker}f$ is an ideal of $A,$ and $\operatorname{Im}f$ is a subring of $B.$ And we have $A/\operatorname{ker}f \cong \operatorname{Im}f.$
And here are the definitions of the operations $+$ and $.$ in $ \langle A/\mathfrak{a}, +, . \rangle :$
If $x \in A,$ then the cosets of $A/\mathfrak{a}$ are of the form $ x + \mathfrak{a}.$ Now, define, $$ (x + \mathfrak{a}) + (y + \mathfrak{a}) = (x + y) + \mathfrak{a}$$ And $$ (x + \mathfrak{a})(y + \mathfrak{a}) = xy + \mathfrak{a}.$$ Now, I want to prove that $ \langle A/\mathfrak{a}, + \rangle$ is an abelian group in a smart way,
1- Can I say that it is an abelian group by the first Isomorphism theorem for groups? also,
2- Is the ordinary way of proving it is just by showing closure and associativity of $+$ and the existence of identity and inverse for every element in $A/\mathfrak{a}$?
Could anyone help me in answering those questions please?