2
$\begingroup$

Is there a way of writing the antiderivative:

$$\int{\frac{F(x)}{F’(x)}dx}$$

In terms of F(x) and its derivatives / antiderivatives ? And if not, is there a proof for its non existence?

Thanks

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ any further restrictions on F? $\endgroup$ Sep 26, 2022 at 16:34
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Not in general. The best you can hope to do in general is to use integration by parts. $\endgroup$ Sep 26, 2022 at 16:41
  • $\begingroup$ I doubt it, to be honest. I mean if you plug in some example functions there is no obvious pattern at least $\endgroup$ Sep 26, 2022 at 16:45

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .