1
$\begingroup$

I know that

  • $(v-w)>(x-y)$
  • $(v-w), (x-y) > 0 $
  • $(a-b)<(c-d)$
  • $(a-b), (c-d)<0$
  • $v,w,x,y,a,b,c,d>0$

Can I conclude from this that $(v*a-w*b)>(x*c-y*d)$?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Using Mathematica, it is not true. $\endgroup$
    – River Li
    Sep 23 at 3:37

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.