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Suppose that $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ such that it is continuous everywhere.

Define $f_o(x) := \frac{f(x) - f(-x)}{2}$.

Fact:

Every function can be written in this form, and is the odd part of $f$.

I am trying to find a function such that $|f_o(x)|>0$ for all $x>0$, but f is not injective (or vice versa).

My proof is as follows:

Proof:

If $f_o$ is injective, then $|f_0(x)|>0$ for all $x>0$:

Suppose $f_o$ is injective.

Claim: Let $x_0 \in \mathbb{R}$. $f_o(x)=0$ iff $x=0$.

Proof: $f_o$ is continuous everywhere as well since it is a linear combination of two everywhere-functions: $f(x)$ and $f(-x)$. Now,

$$\begin{align*} f_o(x_0) = 0 &\iff f_o(x) = \frac{f(0) - f(0)}{2} = \frac{f(0) - f(-0)}{2}\\ &\iff f_o(x_0) = f_o(0) \\ &\iff x_0 = 0 \end{align*}$$

Therefore, if $x>0$, then $f_0(x) \ne 0$. Hence, $|f_o(x)| > 0$.

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If $|f_o(x)|>0$ for all $x>0$, then $f_o$ is injective:

Proof by contraposition:

Suppose that $|f_0(x)| > 0$ for all $x>0$. First, let's proof that $|f_o(x)|$ is strictly increasing, for all $x>0$.

Claim: $|f_o(x)|$ is strictly increasing. Proof:

Notice that either $\lim_{x \to \infty} |f_o(x)| = \infty$ or $\lim_{x \to \infty} |f_o(x)| = M > 0$. Which means that $|f_o(x)|$ must go upward. Hence, $|f_0(x)|$ has to be at least monotonically increasing, e.g., non-decreasing. So, if $\exists x_o \in \mathbb{R}^+$ such that $f_o(x) = f_o(x_0)$, then $0 = |f_o(x) - f_o(x_0)| \ge \bigg | |f_o(x)| - |f_o(x_0)| \bigg | > 0$, an impossibility. Hence, $|f_o(x)|$ is strictly increasing. Q.E.D.

Suppose that $x \ne y$ and both $x,y>0$. We either have: $0<x<y$ or $0<y<x$. In either case, $|f_o(x)|$ is strictly increasing. So, $0 < \bigg | |f_o(x)| - |f_o(y)| \bigg | \le |f_o(x) - f_o(y)|$. This implies that $f_o(x) - f_o(y) \ne 0$. Hence, $f_o(x) \ne f_o(y)$.

By contraposition, this implies that if $f_o(x) = f_o(y)$, then $x=y$.

Q.E.D.

Comments

Is the proof correct?

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    $\begingroup$ "Which means that $|f_o(x)|$ must go upward. Hence, $|f_o(x)|$ has to be at least monotonically increasing," -- The first statement is too vague to interpret, but the second statement is definitely false. The theorem that says "if $f$ is monotonic, then $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)$ exists as an extended real number" doesn't work in reverse, which is what you seem to be doing. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2022 at 22:43

2 Answers 2

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No, your claim is wrong. Take e.g. $f(x)=xe^{-x^2}$. Then, $f_0(x)=f(x)>0$ forall $x>0$ but $f_0$ is not injective.

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There are a whole bunch of continuous functions $f$ such that $f(x)$ is nowhere equal to $f(-x)$ except at $x=0$. There is no reason to expect that they are all injective. For instance, any non-injective function that is positive for $x>0$ and negative for $x<0$ will serve as a counterexample.

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    $\begingroup$ "bounded" is useless, and to "serve as a counterexample", your $f$ has to be chosen non-injective. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2022 at 23:00
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    $\begingroup$ @AnneBauval: you are right, of course. I edited my answer. $\endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Commented Sep 13, 2022 at 23:21

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