This is how my professor derived it:
Taking the case of all valid arrangements of $n$ '(' and $n$ ')', he says that for every invalid arrangement, there will be a ')' at some $k^{th}$ position where the condition that number of '('s exceeds the number of ')'s is invalidated.
Then we can say that by switching all '(' with ')' and vice-versa after this $k^{th}$ position, we will get a bijective mapping to all possible permutations of $n-1$ '(' and $n+1$ ')'.
It is obvious that this is a one-one mapping, but I don't understand how this is an onto or exhaustive mapping? Why will we get every possible permutation of $n-1$ '(' and $n+1$ ')' by doing this?