Theorem: Let $T:H\rightarrow K$ be a bounded linear operator between Hilbert spaces. Then there exists a unique bounded linear operator $T^* :K\rightarrow H$ such that $$\tag{1} \forall h\in H,k\in K :\langle Th,k\rangle=\langle h,T^*k\rangle. $$
The following proof of existence was given by by lecturer:
Suppose there is another linear operator, $S :K\rightarrow H$ such that $$\tag{2} \forall h\in H,k\in K :\langle Th,k\rangle=\langle h,Sk\rangle. $$ Then $$\tag{3} \left\langle h, T^{*} k-S k\right\rangle=\left\langle h, T^{*} k\right\rangle-\langle h, S k\rangle=\langle T h, k\rangle-\langle T h, k\rangle=0 . $$ Thus $T^{*} k=S k$ for all $k\in K$, and therefore $T^*=S$.
What confuses me is that in eq. $(2)$ he defined $S$ such that $\langle h,Sk\rangle=\langle h,T^*k\rangle$ for all $k\in K$, and I don't see why eq. $(3)$ makes it more obvious that $T^*=S$? What exactly is eq. $(3)$ showing that is not obvious from eq. $(1)$ and $(2)$?