1
$\begingroup$
  1. The functions $\sinh$ and $\tanh$ are one-one; their inverses $\sinh^{-1}$ and $\tanh^{-1}$ are defined on $\mathbb{R}$ and $(-1,1)$, respectively. These inverse functions are sometimes denoted by $\arg\sinh$ and $\arg\tanh$ (the "argument" of the hyperbolic sine and tangent. If $\cosh$ is restricted to $[0,\infty)$ it has an inverse, denoted by $\arg\cosh$, or simply $\cosh^{-1}$, which is defined on $[1,\infty)$.

Prove, using information from problem $8$, that

(b) $\cosh(\sinh^{-1}(x))=\sqrt{1+x^2}\tag{1}$

Shouldn't there be a restriction on the values that $x$ can take in $(1)$ (such restrictions are present in other items in this problem, for example)?

In problem $8$ we proved that

$$\cosh^2-\sinh^2=1\tag{1}$$

Hence, expression $(1)$ evaluated at a point $\sinh^{-1}(x)$ is

$$\cosh^2(\sinh^{-1}(x))-\sinh^2(\sinh^{-1}(x))=1$$

$$\cosh^2(\sinh^{-1}(x))-x^2=1$$

$$\cosh^2(\sinh^{-1}(x))=1+x^2\tag{2}$$

$$\cosh(\sinh^{-1}(x))=\sqrt{1+x^2}\tag{3}$$

Consider the step from $(2)$ to $(3)$.

In $(2)$ don't we need to restrict $\sinh^{-1}(x)$ to be in $[1,\infty)$?

Ie

$$\sinh^{-1}(x)\in [1,\infty)$$

Now, since $\sinh$ is increasing and

$$\sinh^{-1}(x)=1 \implies x=\sinh{1}$$

then if $x\in[\sinh{1},\infty)$ then $\sinh^{-1}(x) \in [1,\infty)$.

Finally, just to confirm, the reason we take the positive square root is because $\cosh$ always positive, correct?

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Your $\sin\,$s should be $\sinh\,$s. $\endgroup$
    – anon
    Jul 27, 2022 at 5:49
  • $\begingroup$ In the real variable we don't, because $\sinh:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ is bijective and $\cosh:\Bbb R\to [1,\infty)$ is non-negative. $\endgroup$ Jul 27, 2022 at 5:50
  • $\begingroup$ The reason why we take the positive square root for $\cosh$ is partially that $\cosh\ge0$ and it's probably inherent to the proof you're reading, but it should be noted that $\sinh^{-1}x$ has the explicit formula $\ln\left(x+\sqrt{x^2+1}\right)$, so you could just compute $\cosh\sinh^{-1}(x)$ directly in terms of elementary functions. $\endgroup$ Jul 27, 2022 at 5:54
  • $\begingroup$ In $\cosh(\text{arcsinh}(x))$, $\text{arcsinh}(x)$ is the output which is fed into the function $\cosh(x)$. The possible values of this output (the image) is the set of real numbers, which comes from the domain of the inverse function $\sinh(x) = \frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{2}$. $\endgroup$
    – Toby Mak
    Jul 27, 2022 at 5:56
  • $\begingroup$ Hence there should be no restrictions on the domain of $\cosh(\text{\arcsinh}(x))$. $\endgroup$
    – Toby Mak
    Jul 27, 2022 at 5:57

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

The domain of $\cosh^{-1}$ may be $[1,\infty)$, but there is no $\cosh^{-1}$ in the identity you're talking about so this interval is irrelevant. The domain of $\sinh^{-1} x$ is all real numbers; its range is all real numbers; the domain of $\cosh$ is all real numbers; so $\cosh(\sinh^{-1}x)$ is well-defined for all $x$.

Shouldn't there be a restriction on the values that $x$ can take in $\cosh(\sinh^{-1}(x))=\sqrt{1+x^2}$ (such restrictions are present in other items in this problem, for example)?

No.

In $\cosh^2(\sinh^{-1}(x))=1+x^2$ don't we need to restrict $\sinh^{−1}(x)$ to be in $[1,\infty)$?

No.

Finally, just to confirm, the reason we take the positive square root is because cosh always positive, correct?

Yes.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

The formula holds without any restrictions, since $sinh(x)$ is strictly increasing and hence invertible on $\mathbb{R}$. Let $sinh^{-1}(x)=y$. Then $x=sinhy=\dfrac{e^{y}-e^{-y}}{2}$ .

Soving the binomial for $e^{y}$ we get $e^{y}=x\pm \sqrt{x^{2}+1}$. Since $e^{y}$ is positive, the minus case is rejected and we obtain $e^{y}=x+\sqrt{x^{2}+1}$ and $y=ln(x+\sqrt{x^{2}+1})$.

Now $cosh(y)$=$\dfrac{x+\sqrt{x^{2}+1}}{2}$ +$\dfrac{1}{2(x+\sqrt{x^{2}+1})}$=$\sqrt{x^{2}+1}$.

Thus no restrictions on $x$ are required!!

$\endgroup$
8
  • $\begingroup$ There are strictly increasing functions for which you still need to restrict the domain when you take sections, namely $\cosh(\exp^{-1}(x))=\cosh\ln x$ has domain $(0,\infty)$. $\endgroup$ Jul 27, 2022 at 13:21
  • $\begingroup$ OK ! But this is a complete proof that there is no need for restrictions in this case! $\endgroup$
    – user1054388
    Jul 27, 2022 at 13:28
  • $\begingroup$ ... then why leave the false statements there? $\endgroup$ Jul 27, 2022 at 13:32
  • $\begingroup$ Which are the "false statements"?? Please explain! $\endgroup$
    – user1054388
    Jul 27, 2022 at 13:34
  • $\begingroup$ "The formula holds without any restrictions, since sinh(x) is strictly increasing and hence invertible on R." $\endgroup$ Jul 27, 2022 at 13:34

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .