Suppose $a = a_1+\cdots+a_k$ and $b = b_1+\cdots+b_k$ for some $k\geq 2$, where all variables are positive integers. Can it happen that
$$\frac{1}{a-a_i+1}+\frac{1}{a-a_i+2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{a} \geq \frac{1}{b-b_i}+\frac{1}{b-b_i+1}+\cdots+\frac{1}{b-1}$$ for all $i=1,\ldots,k$?
In the case $a = b$, this can certainly not happen, because we can take $i$ such that $a_i \leq b_i$ (which has to exist because $\sum_i a_i = \sum_i b_i$). Even if $a \neq b$, this seems unlikely to happen. Can we prove it using bounds on the sum of harmonic series?