My try and where I am stuck :
(note:A zero-divisor is a nonzero element $a$ of a commutative ring R such that there is a nonzero element $b\in R$ with $ab=0_{R}$)
Proof:
Assume $uv=1_{R}$ then clearly ($u\ne 0_{R}$) , ($v\ne 0_{R}$) and ($uv$ is non zero divisor because $uv=1_{R}$).
now ($v \cdot(uv)=v \cdot 1_{R}=v$) (Multiplying $uv=1_{R}$ by $v$ from left.)
$\rightarrow$ ($vuv=v)$
$\rightarrow$ ($vuv-v=0_{R}$) (Subtracting $v$ from both sides)
$\rightarrow$ $(vu-1_{R})v=0_{R}$ (By right distributive law)
$\rightarrow$ $(vu-1_{R}=0_{R}$ which is $vu=1_{R} )$ because $v\neq0_{R}$.Here is my problem : How to remove the probability that $v\neq 0_{R}$ may be zero divisor and thus $vu \neq 1_{R}$?