I'm having a confusion with a problem given, any help will be appreciated.
For example it is given a transfer function,
$G(s)= \frac{(s+20)}{(s+1)(s+100)}$
Substitute $j\omega$ to get the frequency response,
$G(j\omega)= \frac{(j\omega+20)}{(j\omega+1)(j\omega+100)}$
The phase angle will be: $\theta(\omega) = \tan^{-1}(\frac{\omega}{20}) - \tan^{-1}(\frac{\omega}{1}) - \tan^{-1}(\frac{\omega}{100})$
What is the intuition behind the tangent function being negative when the complex is in the denominator?