By my post, I had found that $$ \begin{aligned} \frac{\pi^{3}}{8}&= \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln ^{2} x}{x^{2}+1} d x \\&\stackrel{x\mapsto\tan x}{=} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln ^{2}(\tan x) d x \\ &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}[\ln (\sin x)-\ln (\cos x)]^{2} d x \\ &= \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln ^{2}(\sin x) d x-2 \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln (\sin x) \ln (\cos x) d x +\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln ^{2}(\cos x) d x \\ &=2\left[\frac{\pi^{2}}{24}\left(\pi^{2}+3 \ln ^{2} 4\right)\right]-2 I, \end{aligned} $$ the last line comes from the post.
Rearranging yields the result $$ \begin{aligned} I &=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln (\sin x) \ln (\cos x) d x \\ &=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\pi^{3}}{12}+\pi \ln^{2} 2-\frac{\pi^{3}}{8}\right) \\ &=-\frac{\pi^{3}}{48}+\frac{\pi}{2} \ln ^{2} 2 \end{aligned} $$ Is there any other solution? Comments and solutions are highly appreciated.