I am trying to understand a sentence from Hatcher's section 2.2 on Mayer Vietoris sequences. It states that:
"Mayer-Vietoris sequences can be viewed as analogs of the van Kampen theorem since if $A\cap B$ is path-connected, the $H_1$ terms of the reduced Mayer-Vietoris sequence yield an isomorphism $$H_1(X)\approx \left(H_1(A)\oplus H_1(B)\right)/Im \:\Phi.$$ This is exactly the abelianized statement of the van Kampen theorem, and $H_1$ is the abelianization of $\pi_1$ for path-connected spaces..."
Does this mean that the term $H_2(X)$ is $0$, which would imply that there is a short exact sequence $$0 \rightarrow \tilde{H_1}(A\cap B) \rightarrow \tilde{H_1}(A)\oplus \tilde{H_1}(B) \rightarrow \tilde{H_1}(X) \rightarrow 0$$ ?
Or else, how may the statement be explained?